Latest stories

Ashok leyland – Private market value

A

I had written on Ashok leyland earlier.

My valuation was as follows
The company sells at a PE of 12. The current EPS is around 3.3 per share. The company can be expected to grow at 10-12% over the next few years. In addition the company has some competitive advantage such as a known brand name (especially in the south), long operating history and experience in the market, rational management and a decent distrubution/ service network.The company can be valued at around 16-18 times PE and given an intrinsic value of around 60 Rs/ share.

I recently got this email from Vishnu

I have been going through Eicher JV deal with VOLVO. It would be great if you can share your opinions.

Story:
Eicher is stepping down its Commercial Vehicle and Component business into a JV with VOLVO which is paying 275 million USD in CASH and 75 million USD in terms of VOLVO’s truck distribution business in the JV.

Valuations:
Cash(VOLVO) is paying 1045
VOLVO India Truck distribution 142
TOTAL VOLVO Share (45.6%) 1187
EICHER Share in JV (54.4%) 1416.070175
Eicher Market cap 1314
* All figures are in Crores (INR)

I have already shared my opinion on the above opportunity with him. What struck me was that the deal involved the Commercial vehicle business and the deal was valued at approximately 2000 crs. Eicher motor’s CV business had a PAT of roughly 62 crs (pretax – 82 Crs) and hence the private market value (the amount that a private investor would be willing to pay for the company, in its entirety, were it not public) seems to be around 25-30 times earnings

So Ashok leyland can be valued at 70-90 Rs/share by the above metric. My own conservative estimate was around 60/share.

Whats the point of this analysis ? well private market valuation is another approach to valuation. It may be more than your own estimate as it may include controlling premium. However if you can find the private market value to a business you are looking at, it helps in calculating the intrinsic value.

In case you are wondering if I really benifited from my research, I did not completely. I have this tendency to do detailed analysis and build my position over a period of a few months especially if the price drops reaches or drops below 50% of my estimate of intrinsic value. Ashok leyland is around 54 now, so basically the price went up before I could go beyond my initial position. That unfortunately has happened several times this year.

Why should a quick price increase be unfortunate? Well that’s another post for this wacky idea.

Maintenance capex calculation

M

I discussed about maintenance capex and its relation with Free cash flow. To recap

Free cash flow = Net earnings + depreciation – maintenance capex

And free cash flow is the money the owner of business can take out or re-invest in the business.

Maintenance capex however does not have a precise formulae. That does not mean you cannot calculate it. But as you can see, if valuation is based on free cash flow which itself is based on an imprecise measure such as maintenance capex, it cannot be precise in itself.

Valuation depends on free cash flow, project growth rates , terminal value and the discount rates. All these are estimates and hence valuation is itself an estimate. That is the reason I find it assuming when analysts give reports where they give precise valuation targets and on top of that even the duration (next one year !!) when the target would be met.

So, coming back to maintenance capex, how do I estimate it? let me warn you at the outset. My approach is self developed, imprecise and only roughly right.

I will use my valuation template to explain my approach

Worksheet – anal – In this worksheet I fill up the sales, depreciation, wcap etc. On line 26, I calculate the additional capex (additional fixed asset and Wcap for the year). Line 27 is capex as % of sales. This gives me a capex trend (total) for a period of time for the business. I then use this trend to estimate the maintenance capex.

For ex: if the business has an asset turn (on average) of 2, then I would assume capex as 2.5% of sales

Sales = 100
Asset = 50
Inflation increase in sales = 5
Corresponding asset required = 2.5 (2.5% of sales)

If the business is asset heavy (commodity industry) then the maintenance capex as % of sales is high.

If the asset turn is 1, then maintenance capex would be roughly 5% of sales. You can compare this % with depreciation as a % of sales to see if both are roughly equal.

You may find some errors in my worksheet and I plan to load an updated version soon. I don’t use these worksheet very frequently now. After using these worksheets for several years, I am now in a position where I can look at the numbers and estimate if the company looks roughly undervalued. A lot of companies don’t pass that test and are rejected outright. If a company passes that filter, I fill up the excel and go through the entire exercise (which is not very precise in itself)

I have loaded a few samples in the google groups. If you go through this exercise yourself several times, you will see patterns and it will be faster for you too.

In addition to the above excel, please have a look at the excel – Quantitative calculation – worksheet : Maintenance capex to see the relationship between Sales, Asset turns, Maintenance capex and ROC.

Ofcourse you can have a counter argument – who the hell wants to go through such an elaborate exercise to value a company? Don’t I have better things to do in life 🙂

maintenance capex and FCF

m

I received the following question from sanjay shetty via email. I will try to answer the question and have also simplified it via several assumptions

You mentioned you “use maintenance capex needed to support unit volumes or competitive position (maintenance capex).”
I downloaded your Excel sheets couldn’t figure out the basis for calculation of the same, especially as companies don’t give break ups of maintenance capex. If you could explain would be great.
Maybe my understanding is incorrect, however I feel that all Purchase of Fixed assets should be deducted from Free Cash Flow especially when the amount out there is a yearly spend by the company to grow it’s business.

Let me start with the following definition for free cash flow (paraphrased) as given by warren buffet

Free cash flow = Net earnings + depreciation – maintenance capex

Now you can take the above formulae as a given or debate whether it is correct. I think it is correct as free cash flow is basically discretionary cash which the owners (actually managers on their behalf) of the business can choose whichever way to invest. It is discretionary cash because the business is left with this cash after it has incurred the required capex to maintain its current position in terms of volume and competitive position. If it does not do that, then the business will start degrading and may eventually be wiped out.

Now the discretionary cash can be spent in the following ways

1. Invest in the buiness itself if the returns are good – most common approach. Value adding if the business earns more than cost of capital . for ex: ITC, asian paints, HLL etc. This investment is in fixed assets and working capital
2. Accquire other company – Eg. Marico
3. Return cash to shareholder via dividends or share buyback
4. Just hold cash and do nothing – Ex: Merck, Novartis etc

Now the question – How to calculate maintenance capex? There is no precise formulae for that. The best you can do is to arrive at a rough number as companies don’t give this number. Let take the definition above and let me give my approach

If the maintenance capex is to maintain unit volumes, then value sales would be growing at the rate of inflation. So lets take a hypothetical case (simplified)

Sales = 100
Return on equity = 20% ( debt = 0)
Net margin = 10%
Total asset / sales = 2
Total asset = 50
Depreciation = 5 % of asset

Now in year 2
Sales = 105 (5 % inflation)
ROE = 20%
Net margin = 10%
Total asset / sales = 2
Total asset = 52.5
FCF = 10.5+2.5-2.5 [ asset increase = 2.5 ]

So in the simple case above FCF is equal to Net profit. Ofcourse reality is not so simple. However once you get an idea of the basic concept, you can do a rough estimation of the maintenance capex and free cash flow.

Key point to remember – If the ROE is in excess of 15%, generally the depreciation will covers the maintenance capex and the Net profit will be almost equal to free cash flow.

Exception to the above can be seen in some companies such as Gujarat gas/ HLL etc where the Working capital throws off cash and hence the FCF is actually greater than the free cash flow.

So in response to the question above, I would say that some amount of the Fixed asset has to be adjusted , but I would not deduct all the addition. For ex: A company launches a very profitable product and due to volume growth puts up a new plant. The cash flow may be negative during that year and then become positive a few years later. If you focus on the cash flow based on actual capex, you may undervalue the company when it is investing in a profitable venture and over value a company which is not investing and just milking its assets.

The above post may appear fairly academic and boring, but I think the question asked by sanjay goes to the core of how to value a company.
Next post : I will try to explain how I calculate FCF using the excels I have uploaded

Grindwell norton and Free cash flow

G

I received the following email from sanjay shetty and decided to post it as he has asked a very important question on valuation. I have done some work on it on my own and have put the results in the worksheet – Quantitative calculations.xls

You can download is from
here or use the download link in the side bar. Please see the tabs – Maintenance capex and FCF anal.

My responses are in italics. There is a follow up question from sanjay on maintenance capex. I will post on it in detail shortly with an example. If you have looked at my valuation templates, you may have noticed that I use FCF based on maintenance capex for valuation purposes

Hi Rohit,

I’ve been viewing your blog, after your comment on my blog (http://indiainvestor.wordpress.com).

I had a few questions for you.

What methodology are you using to value companies in India?

DCF, comparitive or relative valuation, sum of parts etc. I try to value a company based on multiple approaches and also depending on the nature of the company

Are you using a Discounted Cash Flow method to calculate Intrinsic value? If so, are you checking the Free Cash Flow, how are you calculating it?

yes, i use free cash flow. I however do not use capital expenditure directly. I use maintenance capex needed to support unit volumes or competitive position (maintenance capex). Difficult for me to explain in brief. i have a few excels uploaded in my google group explaining the calculation.

I’ve see most of the companies I’ve analyzed seem to be blowing enormous amounts of cash, with almost negative free cash flow which is worrying. –

I think the key point is whether the capex is maintenance or for growth / accquisition. Let’s take a short example. If a company earns 5% on capital , and has 10% margins (asset turn is 0.5). Then to grow by 5%, the company will use all its free cash flow. Also 5% growth is roughly inflation, so in this case the company is using all its free cash for maintenance capex
In case of a company growing by 20% and 10% margins (asset turns is 2), growth of 5% requires only 50% of the netprofit . The rest is cash flow which company can use to aqcuire other companies, give dividend or build assets. This is the case with grindwell norton. Grindwell has low FCF as it is investing the surplus cash in assets to increase volumes.

Hope the above clarifies .i have tried to provide a quick explaination and have left a few things out (like adding back depreciation)

Take for instance Grindwell Norton, which you’ve recently mentioned on your blog, Every thing seems rosy however Free Cash Flow is the concern.

I have taken out the detailed calculations by sanjay and put the final computations

Free Cash Flow
Mar’ 02 29.178
Mar ’03 21.802
Mar ’04 17.149
Mar ’05 18.481
Mar ’06 3.121

The worrying fact about this company is the amount of cash it’s blowing, though currently it’s Sales, ROIC etc. are all healthy and growing.
Free Cash flow growth is actually going from bad to worse. I’m calculating Free Cash Flow as Net Cash from Operations minus Capital Expenditure which is Purchase of Fixed Assets.

Subscription

Enter your email address if you would like to be notified when a new post is posted:

I agree to be emailed to confirm my subscription to this list

Recent Posts

Select category to filter posts

Archives